634,532
Sounds like a legal question, not one for an agent to answer. Maybe call you state's Board attorney for advice.
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Beatrice Briseno
San Antonio, TX
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Yolanda Cordova-Gilbert
Richmond, TX
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Lise Howe
Washington, DC
1,742,627
It sounds like you have been had by this buyer. In my opinion, there is nothing you can do, unless you had a Buyer-Broker Agreement in place at the time the purchase offer became a contract. I defer this question to a Texas-licensed attorney.
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Eve Alexander
Tampa, FL
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John McCormack, CRS
Albuquerque, NM
3,343,398
DO you have a legal hotline you can call for your state association ? I would start there.
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John McCormack, CRS
Albuquerque, NM
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Yolanda Cordova-Gilbert
Richmond, TX
1,677,896
Check to see what the law is in Texas and go from there.
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John McCormack, CRS
Albuquerque, NM
2,234,243
Keep us updated on how this turns out. I like the suggestion to call your state's legal hotline if you have one.
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Yolanda Cordova-Gilbert
Richmond, TX
1,466,257
Yolanda Cordova-Gilbert Time to get your broker involved and get some legal advice.
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Beatrice Briseno
San Antonio, TX
5,773,914
Yolanda,
I think this may be best answered by a Texas real estate attorney, not a realtor in my opinion. A
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John McCormack, CRS
Albuquerque, NM
443,220
I must confess that I don't understand this. Why did you allow him to put a Realtor 'friend' on the contract? That seems like a red flag right there....Maybe you could share a bit more explaining this....
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Lise Howe
Washington, DC
4,800,232
630,301
3,073,563
275,937
This gives me an idea. When I list a place for sale I will immediately produce an agreement of purchase and sale that has the Buyer as "To be named later" and then collect the commission.
In all seriousness I don't think that's legit. I would contact a real estate lawyer.
2,759,862
Good morning Yolanda. I think this is a question that needs to be answered by an attorney. I've never heard of this before.
1,435,300
2,443,285